Sequences: Find the Pattern

In a sequence, each term starting with the third onward is defined by the formula $$a_n = a_{n-1} - a_{n-2}$$, where $$n$$ is an integer greater than 2. If the first term of the sequence is 3 and the second term is 4, what is the value of the 70th term of the sequence?
Incorrect. [[snippet]]
Incorrect. [[snippet]]
Incorrect. [[snippet]]
Incorrect. [[snippet]]
You can use this fact to skip ahead 66 terms since 66 is divisible by 6. Therefore, >$$a_{67}=a_1=3$$ >$$a_{68}=a_2=4$$ >$$a_{69}=a_3=1$$ >$$a_{70}=a_4=-3$$
Correct. [[snippet]] Here are the first few terms of the sequence: >$$a_1 = \color{blue}{3}$$ >$$a_2 = \color{blue}{4}$$ >$$a_3=4-3 = \color{blue}{1}$$ >$$a_4=1-4 = \color{blue}{-3}$$ >$$a_5=-3-1 = \color{blue}{-4}$$ >$$a_6=-4-(-3) = \color{blue}{-1}$$ >$$a_7=-1-(-4) = \color{blue}{3}$$ >$$a_8=3-(-1) = \color{blue}{4}$$ >$$a_9=4-3 = \color{blue}{1} =a_3$$ because they share the same 2 preceding terms. Hence— >$$a_{10}=a_4=-3$$, and so on. The whole sequence is a formed by a repeating sequence of six numbers: >$$3,~ 4,~ 1,~ {-3},~ {-4},~ {-1}$$
-4
-3
-1
3
4
Continue

The quickest way to get into your dream MBA

Adaptive learning technology

5000+ practice questions

7 simulation exams

Industry-Leading Score Guarantee

Save 100+ hours of your life

iOS and Android apps

Tablet device with “GMAT Prep | Bloomberg Exam Prep” app