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Which of the following is implied about enclosed farmsteads?
The first paragraph tells us that neoclassical economic theory expects that Russian peasants would have used new technologies to make more profit. However, we also learn that Russian peasants did not use European farming methods (which we may infer were new to the Russian peasants and, at least in Europe, produced more profits for European farmers). Enclosed farmsteads are an example of one of those European methods that the Russian peasants did not use.
The way the arguments above are presented suggests that Russian peasants did not embrace enclosed farmsteads the farmsteads proven economical use in Europe, because the economical circumstances of the Russian peasants were not the same as in Europe.
The passage states that Russian peasants did not use enclosed farmsteads because of natural vagaries, not because the peasants lacked the skills to use them effectively.
While it is true that enclosed farmsteads were a new and more advanced technology than strip agriculture, we have no information to tell us how people in the 19th century regarded new and advanced technologies (unlike people in modern societies, they could have regarded them with suspicion).
We are told that Russian peasants did not gain any benefit from enclosed farmsteads. the author implies that European farmers of the 19th century did receive benefits from this new and more advanced method of farming, and that the Russian peasants did not embrace the same technology because of their own economical circumstances.
Although we may infer that Europeans used enclosed farmsteads to make more money than they had previously made, we do not know that they specifically produced more crops - i.e. we cannot infer that crop quantity was the economical advantage provided by enclosed farmsteads. It is possible, for example, that the crops they produced using enclosed farmsteads could have been of higher quality, a fact which led to more crops being sold at a higher price.