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The author gives which of the following reasons for his or her difference of opinion with the feminists cited in the passage?
The first part of this answer choice acknowledges the author's partial agreement with the feminists, and its second part tells us that certain words which are not gender-charged (i.e. neutral) exist which make language not entirely discriminatory.
This answer choice incorrectly represents the information in the passage, which states that men do not have complete control over language. This could mean that men and women share control over certain aspects of language, not necessarily that women have complete control over the remaining aspects.
Although the passage states that men do not have complete control over language and that neutral words exist, we do not know that there is a causal link between them, as suggested in this answer choice by the reason conjunction since.
In other words, the author does not claim neutral words exist because men only have partial control over language.
The expression so prevalent in this answer choice suggests that the large number of gender neutral terms makes the feminists' theory not entirely correct. However, the passage does not tell us anything about the amount of these terms, only that they exist.
Although this is true according to the passage, this is something agreed on by both the author and the feminists, and hence, it is not the reason for the author's difference in opinion with the feminists. This difference of opinion is about the presence of neutral words and the author's claim that language is not entirely patriarchal.