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If the author's opinion about the patriarchal nature of language is correct, what may be inferred about our perceptions of gender?
The author believes that language, overall, favors men (i.e., it is patriarchal). Since language expresses our perceptions of the world, this implies that we actually favor men over women. However, the author also notes that this is not always the case, and therefore we may infer that our perceptions of reality are not always concerned with gender.
This answer choice suggests that gender is important in every situation. However, the author states that there are certain neutral words...which have escaped the male bias, i.e. in some instances, language is not concerned with gender.
The author tells us that he or she does not believe language to be discriminatory towards women at all times. However, we do not know that it is women who are responsible for these instances, nor do we know that it is a change from the past.
It is true that the author believes that, overall, we perceive women are inferior to men. However, in those cases in which language does not enforce a discriminatory nature, the words are neutral (as we learn from the second sentence of the third paragraph) and do not show that we perceive men as inferior to women.
There is no indication in the passage that only men perceive women as inferior to men. At no point does the author differentiate between men's and women's use of language; according to the author, men and women are equally responsible for any patriarchal views.