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In light of discursive constructivism, it may be inferred that
If language is inherently male, and language is a reflection of what we think and since women use language in the same way as men, it necessarily follows that women's thinking is male-centric.
On one hand, we know that discursive constructivism argues that language reflects our worldview. On the other hand, the second sentence of the second paragraph tells us that language imbeds a male-centric worldview, that is, it reaffirms the very worldview that created it.
However, while this answer choice is somewhat correct, it goes again the gist of the argument that worldview creates language and not vice verse. It would be hard to eliminate this answer choice if it weren't for a better and more preferable answer choice which is aligned with the gist of the passage. Look for it!
According to discursive constructivism, we create our own reality via language; there is no objective reality independent of language.
Although we know that language is male-centric and detrimental to women, we have no information about how it became so. We cannot infer that men intend to subjugate women via language.
We have no evidence that other scholars are not interested in the philosophy of language for reasons other than the gendered nature of language, nor do we know for sure that they are not capable of seeing its male-centric structure.